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Nursing Practice V

Critical Care Nursing

5 free PNLE questions with full explanations

Question 1 of 5

After a night of heavy drinking, a 30-year-old man with no known liver disease vomits several times, then retches hard and brings up bright red blood. Which cause is most likely?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D, A tear in the lining of the lower esophagus

63% of students got it right

Why D is correct

A Mallory-Weiss tear is a split in the lining of the lower esophagus, the food pipe, caused by forceful vomiting or retching. Blood that appears only after hard retching, with no liver disease, points to it.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A — "An ulcer bleeding in the stomach or duodenum": A peptic ulcer, a sore in the stomach or duodenum lining, can bleed at any time; nothing links it to the retching.
  • B — "Swollen veins bleeding in the lower esophagus": Varices, enlarged veins in the lower esophagus, can occur in heavy drinkers, but they mostly arise from cirrhosis, which he is not known to have.
  • C — "A stomach lining inflamed by the alcohol": Gastritis, an inflamed stomach lining, can follow drinking and bleed, but it does not wait for hard retching.

References

  • Hinkle & Cheever — Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing (Wolters Kluwer)
  • Ignatavicius & Workman — Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care (Elsevier)
Question 2 of 5

Weeks after a severe head injury, a man on the rehabilitation unit is restless, confused and pulls at his clothes. Which tool does the nurse use to describe the level of his thinking and behavior as he recovers?

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Answer: D, Rancho Los Amigos scale

56% of students got it right

Why D is correct

The Rancho Los Amigos scale describes the thinking and behavior of a person recovering from a brain injury, in levels from lowest to highest function. His restlessness and confusion fit its "confused, agitated" level, and the nurse plans his care by that level.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A — "Glasgow Coma Scale": This measures how awake he is, not his thinking and behavior as he recovers. It scores eye opening, speech and movement.
  • B — "Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test": This checks only his orientation (knowing who and where he is, and the date) and his memory. It is part of care in this same early stage, but it does not rate his behavior as he recovers.
  • C — "Mini-Mental State Examination": This short memory and thinking screen gives one score and does not rate his behavior as he recovers.

References

  • Hinkle & Cheever — Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing (Wolters Kluwer)
  • Ignatavicius & Workman — Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care (Elsevier)
Question 3 of 5

Dilated cardiomyopathy is diagnosed in a 54-year-old man. Which part of his history is most closely linked to this disease?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C, His years of heavy drinking

57% of students got it right

Why C is correct

Heavy drinking over years is linked with cardiomyopathy, a disease of the heart muscle itself. In the dilated type, the lower chambers weaken and stretch, so each beat moves less blood. Cocaine, cancer treatments and infections can also injure the muscle.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A — "His daily coffee habit": Coffee is not a known cause of heart-muscle disease. Caffeine can make the heart race, an effect that does occur, but a racing heart is not the same as a damaged heart muscle.
  • B — "His recurrent heartburn": His recurrent heartburn can feel like chest pain, but it is stomach acid in the food pipe, not a cause of heart-muscle disease.
  • D — "His varicose veins": His varicose veins are swollen leg veins with weak valves, not a cause of heart-muscle disease.

References

  • Hinkle & Cheever — Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing (Wolters Kluwer)
  • Ignatavicius & Workman — Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care (Elsevier)
Question 4 of 5

An adult collapses in a hospital hallway. While a colleague starts CPR, the nurse dries his chest and opens the automated external defibrillator pads. Which pad placement should the nurse use?

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Answer: D, One pad on the upper right chest below the clavicle and one on the left lower lateral chest

47% of students got it right

Why D is correct

For an adult, one pad goes below the right collarbone (clavicle) and the other on the left side of the chest, below the armpit. The shock then crosses the heart from pad to pad.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A — "One pad on the upper right chest and one on the upper left chest, both below the clavicles": Both pads sit too high and too close together.
  • B — "One pad at the left sternal border and one on the right mid-axillary line at the level of the nipple": This mirrors the correct sides, so the current runs away from the heart.
  • C — "One pad on the upper right chest below the clavicle and one over the lower end of the sternum": The lower pad sits on the breastbone (sternum), too close. The upper pad is correct, but the second belongs on the left side.

References

  • Hinkle & Cheever — Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing (Wolters Kluwer)
  • Ignatavicius & Workman — Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care (Elsevier)
Question 5 of 5

A farmer is brought in after spraying crops without protection. He is drooling, tearing, sweating profusely, and incontinent of urine and stool; his pupils are pinpoint and his lungs are full of wheezes and copious secretions. His heart rate is 48. Which combination of antidotes should the nurse anticipate?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B, Atropine plus pralidoxime

42% of students got it right

Why B is correct

The SLUDGE picture — salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI distress, and emesis — with bronchorrhea, miosis, and bradycardia after unprotected crop-spraying is acetylcholinesterase inhibition from organophosphate exposure; atropine dries secretions and reverses the muscarinic effects while pralidoxime reactivates acetylcholinesterase to address the underlying enzyme block.

Why the other options are wrong

  • A — Atropine plus diazepam: Diazepam is only an adjunct for organophosphate-induced seizures; this pairing omits pralidoxime, so the underlying enzyme block is never reactivated.
  • C — Pralidoxime plus diazepam: Reactivates acetylcholinesterase but omits atropine, so the immediate muscarinic effects — bradycardia, bronchorrhea, secretions — go untreated.
  • D — Atropine plus glycopyrrolate: Pairs two anticholinergic drying agents but includes no reactivator, leaving the enzyme block unaddressed.

References

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